Discusion About Varicocele
The task is to answer the following question, in which the correct answer is option D. Then I have to argue why Varicocele is the correct answer. The question is :
A 23-year-old healthy man has been unable to father a child. He and his wife have a workup for infertility. His wife's reproductive function is normal. On physical examination both his testes are palpable in the scrotum and the testes and scrotum are normal in size, with no masses palpable. However, the spermatic cord on the left has the feel of a 'bag of worms'. Laboratory studies show oligospermia. Which of the following conditions is this man most likely to have? Explain your answer.
A Hydrocele
B Testicular torsion
C Spermatocele
D Varicocele
E Seminoma
In this case, the man fits into an age range where a varicocele is more likely to occur; he has no masses palpable on physical examination; and his laboratory studies show oligospermia - all signs that point towards him having a varicocele. Furthermore, the feeling of a \'bag of worms\' when palpating his spermatic cord indicates that he has dilation of his veins, further confirming that this man has a varicocele.
A hydrocele occurs when fluid accumulates around one or both testes, causing swelling in the scrotum. Testicular torsion occurs when one or both testicles twist within their covering sacs and cut off their own blood supply causing severe pain. Spermatoceles are painless cysts filled with semen found near the epididymis (the tube through which sperm passes from each testis). Seminomas are tumors typically found in young adult men between 20-40 years old that originate from germ cells in either one or both testes and often cause swelling/pain in affected area . None these conditions fit description presented within question so cannot provide reasonable explanation why any them would be considered correct option here .